Why entrusting without instructing?

Matthew 25:14-15
14"Again, it will be like a man going on a journey, who called his servants and entrusted his property to them. 15To one he gave five talents of money, to another two talents, and to another one talent, each according to his ability. Then he went on his journey."

Matthew 25:24-30

24"Then the man who had received the one talent came. 'Master,' he said, 'I knew that you are a hard man, harvesting where you have not sown and gathering where you have not scattered seed. 25So I was afraid and went out and hid your talent in the ground. See, here is what belongs to you.'

26"His master replied, 'You wicked, lazy servant! So you knew that I harvest where I have not sown and gather where I have not scattered seed? 27Well then, you should have put my money on deposit with the bankers, so that when I returned I would have received it back with interest.

28" 'Take the talent from him and give it to the one who has the ten talents. 29For everyone who has will be given more, and he will have an abundance. Whoever does not have, even what he has will be taken from him. 30And throw that worthless servant outside, into the darkness, where there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth.'"

Given that the master had known this "worthless" servant's ability, wouldn't the result have been better for both the master and the servant if the master, before going on his journey, had specifically instructed the servant to at least put the one talent on deposit with the bankers and/or entrusted this servant with a different task that the servant was suitable for?

Were there particular reasons why the master entrusted his property to the servants without giving instructions to the servants?

How does one love one's enemies? (And when?)

Luke 19-14 "But his subjects hated him and sent a delegation after him to say, 'We don't want this man to be our king.'"

Luke 19:27 "But those enemies of mine who did not want me to be king over them—bring them here and kill them in front of me."

Matthew 5:44-45 "But I tell you: Love your enemies and pray for those who persecute you, that you may be sons of your Father in heaven. He causes his sun to rise on the evil and the good, and sends rain on the righteous and the unrighteous."

Is one necessarily one's enemy's enemy? Depending on the definition of "enemy"? What is an "enemy"?

If one loves one's enemies, are one's enemies still one's enemies? Depending on the definition of "enemy" and the timing of the love?

If the subjects had loved the king-to-be in the first place, would the king-t0-be still be their enemy? Would the king-to-be still persecute them? Would they still send the delegation? Would they still be the king's enemies? Would the king still kill them?

If the subjects had turned to love the king-to-be after having sent out the delegation, would the king still be their enemy? Would they still be the king's enemies? Would the king still kill them?

May the king, who killed his enemies, be a son of his Father in heaven?

How (and when) does one love one's enemies?

Is the kingdom of heaven obtained this way?

Matthew 13:44 "The kingdom of heaven is like treasure hidden in a field. When a man found it, he hid it again, and then in his joy went and sold all he had and bought that field."

Exodus 20:17 "You shall not covet your neighbor's house. You shall not covet your neighbor's wife, or his manservant or maidservant, his ox or donkey, or anything that belongs to your neighbor."

Should the kingdom of heaven be obtained from others by taking advantage of others' unawareness?

ym asks, "why masks?"

John 4:25-26
25 The woman said, "I know that Messiah" (called Christ) "is coming. When he comes, he will explain everything to us."
26 Then Jesus declared, "I who speak to you am he."

Matthew 13:10-11
10 The disciples came to him and asked, "Why do you speak to the people in parables?"
11 He replied, "The knowledge of the secrets of the kingdom of heaven has been given to you, but not to them."

Mark 4:10-12
10 When he was alone, the Twelve and the others around him asked him about the parables.
11 He told them, "The secret of the kingdom of God has been given to you. But to those on the outside everything is said in parables
12 so that,
" 'they may be ever seeing but never perceiving,
and ever hearing but never understanding;
otherwise they might turn and be forgiven!'"

Has Jesus explained everything about the kingdom of heaven?

If Jesus has explained everything, why did Jesus's disciples try to explain to others what Jesus explained ?

If Jesus has explained everything, why do others try to explain what Jesus explained and what Jesus's disciples explained by producing commentaries, sermons, bible study sessions, etc.?

Does Jesus want people other than the disciples in Matthew 13 and Mark 4 to understand the kingdom of heaven?

If Jesus does, why did Jesus say the words recorded in Matthew 13:11 and Mark 4:11-12?

If Jesus does not, why did Jesus's disciples work against Jesus's will by trying to explain to others what Jesus explained?

If Jesus does not, why do others work against Jesus's will by trying to explain what Jesus explained and what Jesus's disciples explained?

Why is the Samaritan a "neighbor"?

Luke 10:36-37
36 "Which of these three do you think was a neighbor to the man who fell into the hands of robbers?"
37 The expert in the law replied, "The one who had mercy on him." Jesus told him, "Go and do likewise."

Is the Samaritan a neighbor to "the man who fell into the hands of robbers" (hereinafter "the injured person") because [a] he had mercy on the injured person, [b] he was a Samaritan (or enemy), or [c] he was a human being?

If the reason is Possibility [c], then shouldn't the religious leader and the Levi also be neighbors to the injured person?

If the reason is Possibility [b], then what if the Samaritan (or enemy) had not helped the injured person? If the Samaritan (or enemy) had not helped the injured person, would he still be considered a neighbor to the injured person?

If the reason is Possibility [a], then "neighbor to the injured person" is equal to "one who had mercy on the injured person." Accordingly, "Love 'your neighbor' as yourself" is equivalent to "love 'one who had mercy on you' as yourself." According to Matthew 5:46, "If you love those who love you, what reward will you get? Are not even the tax collectors doing that?"

Why is the Samaritan a "neighbor"?

Can a Christian be logical?

Luke 14:26 "If anyone comes to me and does not hate his father and mother, his wife and children, his brothers and sisters—yes, even his own life—he cannot be my disciple."

Mark 10:19 "You know the commandments: 'Do not murder, do not commit adultery, do not steal, do not give false testimony, do not defraud, honor your father and mother.'"

Matthew 15:3-9.

Can one hate one's parents while honoring one's parents? Can one honor one's parents while hating one's parents? Technically yes?

Can one believe both Luke 14:26 and Mark 10:19, be Jesus's (modern) disciple, and be logical at the same time ?

If one disbelieves Luke 14:26, one can love one's family and be logical at the same time. However, can one be Jesus's disciple if one disbelieves Luke 14:26?

If one disbelieves Mark 10:19, one can hate one's family and be logical at the same time. However, can one be Jesus's disciple if one disbelieves Mark 10:19?

If a Christian does not have to be Jesus's (modern) disciple, what is a Christian?

Is a Christian logically illogical given that "all things are possible with God"?

Can a Christian be logically logical?