Posts
Luke 10:36-37
36 "Which of these three do you think was a neighbor to the man who fell into the hands of robbers?"
37 The expert in the law replied, "The one who had mercy on him." Jesus told him, "Go and do likewise."
Is the Samaritan a neighbor to "the man who fell into the hands of robbers" (hereinafter "the injured person") because [a] he had mercy on the injured person, [b] he was a Samaritan (or enemy), or [c] he was a human being?
If the reason is Possibility [c], then shouldn't the religious leader and the Levi also be neighbors to the injured person?
If the reason is Possibility [b], then what if the Samaritan (or enemy) had not helped the injured person? If the Samaritan (or enemy) had not helped the injured person, would he still be considered a neighbor to the injured person?
If the reason is Possibility [a], then "neighbor to the injured person" is equal to "one who had mercy on the injured person." Accordingly, "Love 'your neighbor' as yourself" is equivalent to "love 'one who had mercy on you' as yourself." According to Matthew 5:46, "If you love those who love you, what reward will you get? Are not even the tax collectors doing that?"
Why is the Samaritan a "neighbor"?
Subscribe to:
Post Comments (Atom)
2 comments:
Let’s back up a few verses to Luke 10:29:
The expert of the law asked the question because he wanted to justify himself. Jesus did more than defining “neighbor” but challenged the presupposition of the law expert. In Luke 10: 36, Jesus asked the law expert: “Which of these three, do you think, proved to be a neighbor to the man who fell among the robbers?” (ESV)
“Neighbor” should be symmetric; you are my neighbor and I am your neighbor.
To love your neighbor is, under God’s providence, to have mercy on him who needs mercy.
Maybe we need not ask why the Samaritan was a neighbor (he had had mercy on the injured man first), but would the injured man (or the law expert, or you and I) be a neighbor to a Samaritan if the Samaritan was in need?
Thanks, VB.
Yes, geographically and physically, if A is B's neighbor, then B is A's neighbor. However, if the "neighbor" in "love your neighbor as yourself" in Luke 10:27 is "symmetric", then isn't the "you" in Luke 10:27 similar the "you" in Matthew 5:46?
Maybe Jesus meant to ask, "Which of these three do you think [loved the man who fell into the hands of robbers as his neighbor]?" This would reasonably lead to what Jesus said in Luke 10:37, "Go and do likewise." However, wouldn't the text inside the brackets require switching the subject and the object in Jesus's original question in the context of "love your neighbor as yourself"? Is it okay to switch subjects and objects in Bible text?
Post a Comment